A peasant by definition does not own the land he works. He pays taxes to the feudal landlord for the permission to work the land, so in effect rents the means of production.
Freeholding peasants are a thing :) A quick double check search before making strong declarations is a good idea. Enough misinfo online without well-meaning people spreading it.
While tenant farming still exists to this day which has peasants rent their land, there’s plenty of free peasants who do own their land, utilize family labor and sell their surplus produce. That was the case under feudalism too, except that it was much rarer.
In US though, which is what this dogshit post is referring to, the relationship to land was much different than it was in Europe (no entrenched feudal system carrying over obligations, homesteading acts, etc), majority of peasants owned their own land and that is still the case today
A peasant by definition does not own the land he works. He pays taxes to the feudal landlord for the permission to work the land, so in effect rents the means of production.
Freeholding peasants are a thing :) A quick double check search before making strong declarations is a good idea. Enough misinfo online without well-meaning people spreading it.
While tenant farming still exists to this day which has peasants rent their land, there’s plenty of free peasants who do own their land, utilize family labor and sell their surplus produce. That was the case under feudalism too, except that it was much rarer.
In US though, which is what this dogshit post is referring to, the relationship to land was much different than it was in Europe (no entrenched feudal system carrying over obligations, homesteading acts, etc), majority of peasants owned their own land and that is still the case today