A median house price and median salary should also be calculated, those datas aren’t very useful without understanding the economic condition of the people
The graph is change in real prices that means inflation / cost of living adjusted. The anglophone countries would need to see equivalent real wage growth to make it just about salaries, which as far as I know they haven’t.
A median house price and median salary should also be calculated, those datas aren’t very useful without understanding the economic condition of the people
The graph is change in real prices that means inflation / cost of living adjusted. The anglophone countries would need to see equivalent real wage growth to make it just about salaries, which as far as I know they haven’t.
In statistics, making inferences and drawing conclusions from a limited number of variables is considered disingenuous (at best).
The statement in the title of the graph is fully supported by the data shown. What inferences do you think have been made in error here?