• jjj@lemmy.blahaj.zone
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    2 days ago

    May as well go through the proofs:

    First, we need to establish that two infinities are equal in cardinality (aka size) if all their elements can be 1:1 mapped to each other.

    So, to go from the reals within [0, 1] and [0, 2], we can multiply by 2. This maps every value within [0, 1] to every value within [0, 2], so these are of the same cardinality.

    Where things get interesting is the proof that the reals within [0, 1] are of greater cardinality than every integer.

    Say we have an arbitrary mapping from every integer to a real within [0, 1]:

    0 -> 0.892361 -> 0.473892 -> 0.847763 -> 0.187904 -> 0.90542…
    ⋮           ⋱
    

    This list contains every integer, but it does not contain every real number because we can always come up with a new one by ensuring at least one digit is different in each existing real:

    0 ->8… ≠ 9
    1 ->7… ≠ 8
    2 ->7… ≠ 8
    3 ->9… ≠ 0
    4 ->2… ≠ 3
    ⋮           ⋱
    
              0.98803… is not within the list
    

    Therefore, no 1:1 mapping between the integers and reals exists. Because the limiting factor is the amount of integers, the cardinality of the reals is greater than that of the integers.

    Edit: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cantor’s_diagonal_argument